Q:

Does notarizing the document of a description invalidate any future attempt to patent it?

In other words, can it count as prior art that will result in rejecting a patent application submitted after the notarization? Thanks.
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Edit: Due to my poor knowledge of English terminology, this question was actually about timestamping, not notarizing. I've now posted a more relevant and researched question here. But I think that this one also has some merit thanks to the answers below.

A:

I am not a lawyer, so my answer is quite possibly wrong. That said, I have had documents notarized and in every case, the notary was only verifying that I willingly signed the document and know what I'm signing. The notary didn't even read the document. The following quote is from this site.

A notary public is a public official appointed by a state government
  to help deter fraud. Notary publics witness the signing of important
  documents and verify the identity of the signer(s), their willingness
  to sign the documents, and their awareness of the contents of the
  document or transaction.

Since the document itself wasn't made public, I'm going to go out on a limb and suggest that the mere act of getting a document notarized does not constitute public disclosure and would not invalidate a subsequent attempt to patent the idea described in the document.
Again, I could be wrong so I hope an actual lawyer answers the question. In any case, if this is of real importance to you, I would suggest that getting legal advice from Q&A sites like this is not sufficient and you should consult with an actual attorney.

